Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Im not transphobic/homophobic but, am I in the wrong for being uncomfortable when a trans person comes into the lockeroom? I just dont want them to stare at me while Im changing.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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